If I may ask a question to the legal minded in the group...

I have a "friend" who sold a car he owned outright 8 months ago and didn't have the title notarized (or completely filled out) as the buyer stated it wasn't required in his state and he'd done this a bunch of times, etc. etc.

The buyer subsequently bought a different car and sold "my friend's" car to another party (buyer #2) who is now asking that the title be notarized. The title now only contains buyer#2's information. It was never registered by buyer #1. The date of transaction is being recorded as almost 8 months after the original one between my friend and buyer #1.

Is there any risk to helping out buyer #2 in this situation and completing the title as asked?

Thanks in advance. I'm sure my friend will appreciate your input.

Jim